undersad

why?

Good reasoning for not knowing property law! It's actually O, the original owner, who owns the land. In order to satisfy adverse possession, someone has to occupy it for a period of 20 years, using it openly and notoriously, in a manner that a rightful owner would. It is possible to "tack" adverse possessors on, so that if A satisfied the elements for 6 years, someone else could satisfy them for the next 14 years, thus taking title. But the key is that there has to be some sort of privity between them - for example, one leased it to the other. But an ouster is forceful and no legal privity exists - so when Mr. X forced A off the land, he couldn't benefit from the six years she had already gone towards satisfying the requirement for adverse possession. So, after 20 years from the time A began possession, O still owned the land. But if Mr. X stayed on for another 6 years on his own, he could claim title.